IC-38 Life Insurance Important MCQs Part 3 | Latest IRDA Exam Questions 2025

IC-38 Life Insurance — Important MCQs (Part 3)

Questions 101–150 — Click Show Answer for the correct option and a short explanation.

101Which of the following is a core objective of life insurance regulation?
  • A.Protect policyholders
  • B.Promote unfair competition
  • C.Eliminate agents
  • D.Provide unlimited bonuses
Answer: A
Regulators ensure consumer protection and insurer soundness.
102Which of these best describes 'mortality risk'?
  • A.Risk of policyholder living too long
  • B.Risk of death higher than expected
  • C.Investment risk in funds
  • D.Operational risk for insurer
Answer: B
Mortality assumptions drive pricing and reserving for life products.
103What is 'claim settlement ratio' commonly used to measure?
  • A.Percentage of claims settled to claims filed
  • B.Profitability only
  • C.Agent count
  • D.Number of policies issued
Answer: A
High ratio signals timely claim handling but needs context of repudiations and delays.
104Which is a primary reason insurers request medical reports?
  • A.To increase commission
  • B.To assess applicant’s health risk for underwriting
  • C.To advertise products
  • D.To delay issuance
Answer: B
Medicals help price risk accurately and deter adverse selection.
105What does 'adverse selection' refer to?
  • A.Insurer selecting best risks
  • B.High-risk individuals more likely to buy cover
  • C.Agents refusing clients
  • D.Premium refunds
Answer: B
Underwriting and pricing mitigate adverse selection.
106Which policy feature provides cover only on death within term and not on survival?
  • A.Term assurance
  • B.Endowment plan
  • C.Whole life
  • D.Money-back policy
Answer: A
Term is cost-effective for income replacement needs.
107Which is true about 'unit allocation' in ULIPs?
  • A.Units allocated are fixed regardless of date
  • B.Units purchased depend on net premium after charges and NAV
  • C.Units equal sum assured
  • D.Units are tax-free always
Answer: B
Charges like premium allocation and admin reduce units bought initially.
108What is 'vesting age' often relevant to in life plans?
  • A.Age when beneficiary becomes legally entitled to benefits in some policies
  • B.Agent retirement age
  • C.Insurer incorporation age
  • D.Premium due date
Answer: A
Useful in structuring policies for dependents/ minors via trusts.
109Which of the following is NOT a non-forfeiture option?
  • A.Surrender value
  • B.Paid-up value
  • C.Policy loan
  • D.Immediate claim settlement for all situations
Answer: D
Non-forfeiture protects policyholder when premiums stop after minimum years.
110Which document provides full terms, exclusions and conditions of a policy?
  • A.Policy document (policy bond)
  • B.Advertisement
  • C.Agent brochure
  • D.Claim form
Answer: A
Always preserve policy bond and benefit illustrations for future reference.
111What does 'terminal bonus' typically reflect?
  • A.Administrative fees
  • B.Accumulated surplus distribution at maturity or claim
  • C.Penalty
  • D.Premium refund
Answer: B
It complements reversionary bonuses where declared by insurer.
112Which one is a key function of an actuary in life insurance?
  • A.Design products, set premiums and reserves using statistical models
  • B.Sell policies door-to-door
  • C.Handle marketing campaigns
  • D.Write advertisements
Answer: A
Actuarial work is central to insurer financial soundness and pricing accuracy.
113Which is true about 'bonus vesting'?
  • A.Bonuses are payable only if vested
  • B.Vesting irrelevant
  • C.Vesting reduces premium
  • D.Vesting cancels policy
Answer: A
Non-vested bonuses are prospective and not guaranteed.
114Which of the following increases insurer's reserve requirements?
  • A.Lower mortality than expected
  • B.Higher mortality than expected
  • C.Lower sum assured
  • D.More policy surrenders
Answer: B
Reserving models adjust to emerging experience and regulatory requirements.
115What is 'policy benefit illustration' primarily intended to do?
  • A.Hide charges
  • B.Show projected outcomes under assumptions to help customers compare
  • C.Increase commission
  • D.Delay issuance
Answer: B
Not a guarantee but a comparison tool mandated in many jurisdictions.
116Which is an example of a contingent beneficiary?
  • A.Primary nominee
  • B.Alternate person named to receive benefit if primary unavailable
  • C.Insurer
  • D.Agent
Answer: B
Naming contingent beneficiaries improves clarity in claims settlement.
117Which is typical when an insurer 'loads' a premium?
  • A.Reduce premium
  • B.Increase premium due to higher perceived risk
  • C.Cancel policy
  • D.Waive medicals
Answer: B
Loadings are a form of risk-based pricing applied by underwriters.
118Which is true about policy 'assignment' vs 'nomination'?
  • A.Nomination transfers ownership
  • B.Assignment transfers ownership/rights; nomination designates payee
  • C.Both illegal
  • D.Same meaning
Answer: B
Assignment is often used as collateral; insurer must be notified and record it.
119Which factor typically reduces life policy premium?
  • A.Older age
  • B.Healthier lifestyle
  • C.High sum assured
  • D.Risky occupation
Answer: B
Underwriting rewards lower risk profiles with better rates.
120Which is part of insurer's solvency management?
  • A.Ignoring reserves
  • B.Maintaining adequate technical reserves
  • C.Deliberately underpricing
  • D.Speculative investment only
Answer: B
Solvency protects policyholders from insurer default risk.
121What does 'free-look' period allow a policyholder to do?
  • A.Change premium rates
  • B.Return the policy within specified days for refund
  • C.Increase sum assured automatically
  • D.Assign policy
Answer: B
Regulated minimum days apply; ensures buyer protection post issuance.
122Which of the following is true for 'group schemes'?
  • A.Individual underwriting always required
  • B.Risk assessed at group level; simplified underwriting often used
  • C.Never covers employees
  • D.Always provides higher benefits than retail plans
Answer: B
Group design offers operational efficiency but may limit portability for members.
123Which action can insurer take if material facts are misrepresented?
  • A.Ignore it
  • B.Cancel policy, repudiate claim or adjust benefit depending on law and timing
  • C.Increase bonuses
  • D.Award agent
Answer: B
Consumer protection rules and contestability periods shape remedies available to insurer.
124Which is a common reason to offer 'waiver of premium' rider?
  • A.To stop cover
  • B.To maintain cover if policyholder becomes disabled and unable to pay premiums
  • C.To increase surrender value
  • D.To change nominee
Answer: B
Useful protection ensuring cover continuity without premium burden during disability.
125Which is an example of 'operational risk' for insurers?
  • A.Fraud, system failure or process breakdown
  • B.Mortality only
  • C.Investment returns only
  • D.Agent training
Answer: A
Mitigation requires controls, audit, IT security and governance frameworks.
126Which is true about 'table of benefits' in policy schedule?
  • A.Shows premium only
  • B.Outlines sum assured, riders, term and payment frequency
  • C.Contains agent commission rates
  • D.Is an optional marketing leaflet
Answer: B
Important for clarity at the point of sale and for claims processing.
127What is the effect of anti-selection on insurer pricing?
  • A.Leads to lower premiums
  • B.Leads to adverse claims experience and potential premium increase
  • C.No effect
  • D.Improves surplus
Answer: B
Product design and underwriting guard against anti-selection risks.
128Which of the following typically reduces surrender value in early years?
  • A.High acquisition costs and commissions
  • B.Premium holidays
  • C.Low mortality
  • D.Reversionary bonuses
Answer: A
Explains why surrender early often yields little cash back.
129Which is true regarding 'premium frequency'?
  • A.Frequency has no effect on premium amount
  • B.More frequent payments may incur small loading vs annual due to admin
  • C.Monthly premiums always lower than annual
  • D.Frequency determines sum assured
Answer: B
Annual mode often cheapest; insurers provide flexibility with minor loadings for convenience.
130Which is correct about 'policy revival' time limits?
  • A.No time limit exists
  • B.Time limit specified in policy or regulation within which revival can be applied
  • C.Revival possible only after 10 years
  • D.Revival automatically approved
Answer: B
Revival may require medical evidence and payment of arrears plus interest.
131Which is true about surrender penalties?
  • A.They increase surrender value
  • B.They reduce amount paid on early surrender to discourage early exit
  • C.They are always illegal
  • D.They are paid to nominee
Answer: B
Penalty structure often slides down over years until full surrender value accrues.
132Which term refers to insurer’s practice of sharing profit with policyholders?
  • A.Reinsurance
  • B.Bonus distribution (participation)
  • C.Cancellation
  • D.Assignment
Answer: B
Bonuses reflect insurer investment and mortality experience over time.
133Which is true about benefit pay-out options at maturity?
  • A.Policyholder always gets cash only
  • B.Options may include lump sum, annuity conversion or installment payments
  • C.Only insurer chooses
  • D.Nominee decides regardless of policy
Answer: B
Choice at maturity should be exercised as per policy clauses and regulators’ rules.
134Which is true about 'policy servicing' obligations?
  • A.Insurer must respond to customer requests and handle grievances per regulation
  • B.Insurer can ignore enquiries
  • C.Only agents service policies
  • D.Policy servicing is optional
Answer: A
Good servicing is essential for trust and regulatory compliance.
135Which is true about 'misrepresentation' at proposal?
  • A.Has no consequence
  • B.Can lead to policy avoidance or claim repudiation if material
  • C.Always forgiven
  • D.Rewards the proposer
Answer: B
Utmost good faith requires honest disclosure by proposer.
136Which is a common method to compute reserves for life insurers?
  • A.Stochastic only
  • B.Deterministic reserves (e.g., net premium method) and stochastic approaches as needed
  • C.No reserves
  • D.Random guessing
Answer: B
Reserve methods vary by product complexity and regulation.
137Which is a regulator-imposed requirement to protect policyholders?
  • A.Maintaining solvency margin
  • B.Providing unlimited credit to agents
  • C.Prohibiting all advertising
  • D.Mandatory free policies
Answer: A
Regulators monitor capital adequacy, investments and governance to protect consumers.
138Which is true about 'premium redirection' in ULIPs?
  • A.Policyholder can switch future premiums between funds
  • B.Insurer forces allocation
  • C.Never allowed
  • D.Only for whole life
Answer: A
A flexibility feature for ULIP investors depending on market views and needs.
139What does 'retrospective bonus' imply?
  • A.Bonus declared and added to previous years' benefits in one go
  • B.Bonus removed
  • C.Bonus paid monthly
  • D.Never used
Answer: A
Terminology varies; check product literature for bonus types and timing.
140Which best practice reduces mis-selling risk by agents?
  • A.Clear product explanation and suitability assessment
  • B.Concealing charges
  • C.Promise guaranteed returns falsely
  • D.Selling only high commission products
Answer: A
Regulators emphasize fair practice codes and product suitability tests for agents.
141Which clause deals with suicide in many policies?
  • A.Suicide clause limiting payout if death by suicide within initial period
  • B.Bonus clause
  • C.Assignment clause
  • D.Nomination clause
Answer: A
Specific terms and waiting periods are stated in policy wording.
142Which is correct about 'premium financing' arrangements?
  • A.Borrowing to pay premiums with policy as collateral
  • B.Always provided by insurer interest-free
  • C.Illegal
  • D.Only for micro insurance
Answer: A
Useful for high net worth planning but increases complexity and costs.
143Which is an example of a 'non-life' product (not life insurance)?
  • A.Health insurance (general)
  • B.Endowment
  • C.Whole life
  • D.Term assurance
Answer: A
Life vs general product distinctions matter for regulation and claim handling.
144Which is true about 'policy endorsements'?
  • A.They alter policy terms and are recorded as formal amendments
  • B.They are informal notes
  • C.They cancel nominee rights
  • D.They are illegal
Answer: A
Endorsements provide formal record of modifications to original contract.
145Which is the role of 'reinsurer'?
  • A.Accept a portion of insurer’s risk to help spread large exposures
  • B.Sell policies direct to customers
  • C.Manage agents
  • D.Calculate premiums for banks
Answer: A
Reinsurance is a standard risk management tool in insurance industry.
146Which is a common disclosure required at point of sale?
  • A.Charges, benefits, surrender conditions and cooling-off period
  • B.Insurer secrets
  • C.Agent income only
  • D.None
Answer: A
Transparent disclosure reduces mis-selling and consumer complaints.
147Which is a benefit of 'premium waiver' rider?
  • A.Stops cover permanently
  • B.Keeps cover in force while premiums are waived due to disability of insured
  • C.Increases premiums automatically
  • D.Removes sum assured
Answer: B
Conditions for waiver (proof, waiting periods) are product-specific.
148Which is true about 'surrender value formula'?
  • A.Surrender value is arbitrary
  • B.Often based on guaranteed surrender value plus vested bonuses, subject to policy rules
  • C.Equal to death benefit
  • D.Not disclosed
Answer: B
Policy documents and regulations set minimum guaranteed surrender provisions.
149Which is true about 'premium holiday'?
  • A.Policy errors
  • B.Temporary suspension of premium payments allowed under product terms
  • C.Always increases benefits
  • D.Changes ownership
Answer: B
Premium holiday terms vary; some policies permit limited pauses under conditions.
150Which is the correct practice for document retention by policyholders?
  • A.Discard policy bond after purchase
  • B.Keep policy documents, receipts and communications safely for claims and reference
  • C.Send originals to agent only
  • D.Never keep any record
Answer: B
Good record-keeping speeds claim settlement and reduces disputes.

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