IC-38 Life Insurance — Important MCQs (Part 3)
Questions 101–150 — Click Show Answer for the correct option and a short explanation.
101Which of the following is a core objective of life insurance regulation?
- A.Protect policyholders
- B.Promote unfair competition
- C.Eliminate agents
- D.Provide unlimited bonuses
Answer: A
Regulators ensure consumer protection and insurer soundness.
102Which of these best describes 'mortality risk'?
- A.Risk of policyholder living too long
- B.Risk of death higher than expected
- C.Investment risk in funds
- D.Operational risk for insurer
Answer: B
Mortality assumptions drive pricing and reserving for life products.
103What is 'claim settlement ratio' commonly used to measure?
- A.Percentage of claims settled to claims filed
- B.Profitability only
- C.Agent count
- D.Number of policies issued
Answer: A
High ratio signals timely claim handling but needs context of repudiations and delays.
104Which is a primary reason insurers request medical reports?
- A.To increase commission
- B.To assess applicant’s health risk for underwriting
- C.To advertise products
- D.To delay issuance
Answer: B
Medicals help price risk accurately and deter adverse selection.
105What does 'adverse selection' refer to?
- A.Insurer selecting best risks
- B.High-risk individuals more likely to buy cover
- C.Agents refusing clients
- D.Premium refunds
Answer: B
Underwriting and pricing mitigate adverse selection.
106Which policy feature provides cover only on death within term and not on survival?
- A.Term assurance
- B.Endowment plan
- C.Whole life
- D.Money-back policy
Answer: A
Term is cost-effective for income replacement needs.
107Which is true about 'unit allocation' in ULIPs?
- A.Units allocated are fixed regardless of date
- B.Units purchased depend on net premium after charges and NAV
- C.Units equal sum assured
- D.Units are tax-free always
Answer: B
Charges like premium allocation and admin reduce units bought initially.
108What is 'vesting age' often relevant to in life plans?
- A.Age when beneficiary becomes legally entitled to benefits in some policies
- B.Agent retirement age
- C.Insurer incorporation age
- D.Premium due date
Answer: A
Useful in structuring policies for dependents/ minors via trusts.
109Which of the following is NOT a non-forfeiture option?
- A.Surrender value
- B.Paid-up value
- C.Policy loan
- D.Immediate claim settlement for all situations
Answer: D
Non-forfeiture protects policyholder when premiums stop after minimum years.
110Which document provides full terms, exclusions and conditions of a policy?
- A.Policy document (policy bond)
- B.Advertisement
- C.Agent brochure
- D.Claim form
Answer: A
Always preserve policy bond and benefit illustrations for future reference.
111What does 'terminal bonus' typically reflect?
- A.Administrative fees
- B.Accumulated surplus distribution at maturity or claim
- C.Penalty
- D.Premium refund
Answer: B
It complements reversionary bonuses where declared by insurer.
112Which one is a key function of an actuary in life insurance?
- A.Design products, set premiums and reserves using statistical models
- B.Sell policies door-to-door
- C.Handle marketing campaigns
- D.Write advertisements
Answer: A
Actuarial work is central to insurer financial soundness and pricing accuracy.
113Which is true about 'bonus vesting'?
- A.Bonuses are payable only if vested
- B.Vesting irrelevant
- C.Vesting reduces premium
- D.Vesting cancels policy
Answer: A
Non-vested bonuses are prospective and not guaranteed.
114Which of the following increases insurer's reserve requirements?
- A.Lower mortality than expected
- B.Higher mortality than expected
- C.Lower sum assured
- D.More policy surrenders
Answer: B
Reserving models adjust to emerging experience and regulatory requirements.
115What is 'policy benefit illustration' primarily intended to do?
- A.Hide charges
- B.Show projected outcomes under assumptions to help customers compare
- C.Increase commission
- D.Delay issuance
Answer: B
Not a guarantee but a comparison tool mandated in many jurisdictions.
116Which is an example of a contingent beneficiary?
- A.Primary nominee
- B.Alternate person named to receive benefit if primary unavailable
- C.Insurer
- D.Agent
Answer: B
Naming contingent beneficiaries improves clarity in claims settlement.
117Which is typical when an insurer 'loads' a premium?
- A.Reduce premium
- B.Increase premium due to higher perceived risk
- C.Cancel policy
- D.Waive medicals
Answer: B
Loadings are a form of risk-based pricing applied by underwriters.
118Which is true about policy 'assignment' vs 'nomination'?
- A.Nomination transfers ownership
- B.Assignment transfers ownership/rights; nomination designates payee
- C.Both illegal
- D.Same meaning
Answer: B
Assignment is often used as collateral; insurer must be notified and record it.
119Which factor typically reduces life policy premium?
- A.Older age
- B.Healthier lifestyle
- C.High sum assured
- D.Risky occupation
Answer: B
Underwriting rewards lower risk profiles with better rates.
120Which is part of insurer's solvency management?
- A.Ignoring reserves
- B.Maintaining adequate technical reserves
- C.Deliberately underpricing
- D.Speculative investment only
Answer: B
Solvency protects policyholders from insurer default risk.
121What does 'free-look' period allow a policyholder to do?
- A.Change premium rates
- B.Return the policy within specified days for refund
- C.Increase sum assured automatically
- D.Assign policy
Answer: B
Regulated minimum days apply; ensures buyer protection post issuance.
122Which of the following is true for 'group schemes'?
- A.Individual underwriting always required
- B.Risk assessed at group level; simplified underwriting often used
- C.Never covers employees
- D.Always provides higher benefits than retail plans
Answer: B
Group design offers operational efficiency but may limit portability for members.
123Which action can insurer take if material facts are misrepresented?
- A.Ignore it
- B.Cancel policy, repudiate claim or adjust benefit depending on law and timing
- C.Increase bonuses
- D.Award agent
Answer: B
Consumer protection rules and contestability periods shape remedies available to insurer.
124Which is a common reason to offer 'waiver of premium' rider?
- A.To stop cover
- B.To maintain cover if policyholder becomes disabled and unable to pay premiums
- C.To increase surrender value
- D.To change nominee
Answer: B
Useful protection ensuring cover continuity without premium burden during disability.
125Which is an example of 'operational risk' for insurers?
- A.Fraud, system failure or process breakdown
- B.Mortality only
- C.Investment returns only
- D.Agent training
Answer: A
Mitigation requires controls, audit, IT security and governance frameworks.
126Which is true about 'table of benefits' in policy schedule?
- A.Shows premium only
- B.Outlines sum assured, riders, term and payment frequency
- C.Contains agent commission rates
- D.Is an optional marketing leaflet
Answer: B
Important for clarity at the point of sale and for claims processing.
127What is the effect of anti-selection on insurer pricing?
- A.Leads to lower premiums
- B.Leads to adverse claims experience and potential premium increase
- C.No effect
- D.Improves surplus
Answer: B
Product design and underwriting guard against anti-selection risks.
128Which of the following typically reduces surrender value in early years?
- A.High acquisition costs and commissions
- B.Premium holidays
- C.Low mortality
- D.Reversionary bonuses
Answer: A
Explains why surrender early often yields little cash back.
129Which is true regarding 'premium frequency'?
- A.Frequency has no effect on premium amount
- B.More frequent payments may incur small loading vs annual due to admin
- C.Monthly premiums always lower than annual
- D.Frequency determines sum assured
Answer: B
Annual mode often cheapest; insurers provide flexibility with minor loadings for convenience.
130Which is correct about 'policy revival' time limits?
- A.No time limit exists
- B.Time limit specified in policy or regulation within which revival can be applied
- C.Revival possible only after 10 years
- D.Revival automatically approved
Answer: B
Revival may require medical evidence and payment of arrears plus interest.
131Which is true about surrender penalties?
- A.They increase surrender value
- B.They reduce amount paid on early surrender to discourage early exit
- C.They are always illegal
- D.They are paid to nominee
Answer: B
Penalty structure often slides down over years until full surrender value accrues.
132Which term refers to insurer’s practice of sharing profit with policyholders?
- A.Reinsurance
- B.Bonus distribution (participation)
- C.Cancellation
- D.Assignment
Answer: B
Bonuses reflect insurer investment and mortality experience over time.
133Which is true about benefit pay-out options at maturity?
- A.Policyholder always gets cash only
- B.Options may include lump sum, annuity conversion or installment payments
- C.Only insurer chooses
- D.Nominee decides regardless of policy
Answer: B
Choice at maturity should be exercised as per policy clauses and regulators’ rules.
134Which is true about 'policy servicing' obligations?
- A.Insurer must respond to customer requests and handle grievances per regulation
- B.Insurer can ignore enquiries
- C.Only agents service policies
- D.Policy servicing is optional
Answer: A
Good servicing is essential for trust and regulatory compliance.
135Which is true about 'misrepresentation' at proposal?
- A.Has no consequence
- B.Can lead to policy avoidance or claim repudiation if material
- C.Always forgiven
- D.Rewards the proposer
Answer: B
Utmost good faith requires honest disclosure by proposer.
136Which is a common method to compute reserves for life insurers?
- A.Stochastic only
- B.Deterministic reserves (e.g., net premium method) and stochastic approaches as needed
- C.No reserves
- D.Random guessing
Answer: B
Reserve methods vary by product complexity and regulation.
137Which is a regulator-imposed requirement to protect policyholders?
- A.Maintaining solvency margin
- B.Providing unlimited credit to agents
- C.Prohibiting all advertising
- D.Mandatory free policies
Answer: A
Regulators monitor capital adequacy, investments and governance to protect consumers.
138Which is true about 'premium redirection' in ULIPs?
- A.Policyholder can switch future premiums between funds
- B.Insurer forces allocation
- C.Never allowed
- D.Only for whole life
Answer: A
A flexibility feature for ULIP investors depending on market views and needs.
139What does 'retrospective bonus' imply?
- A.Bonus declared and added to previous years' benefits in one go
- B.Bonus removed
- C.Bonus paid monthly
- D.Never used
Answer: A
Terminology varies; check product literature for bonus types and timing.
140Which best practice reduces mis-selling risk by agents?
- A.Clear product explanation and suitability assessment
- B.Concealing charges
- C.Promise guaranteed returns falsely
- D.Selling only high commission products
Answer: A
Regulators emphasize fair practice codes and product suitability tests for agents.
141Which clause deals with suicide in many policies?
- A.Suicide clause limiting payout if death by suicide within initial period
- B.Bonus clause
- C.Assignment clause
- D.Nomination clause
Answer: A
Specific terms and waiting periods are stated in policy wording.
142Which is correct about 'premium financing' arrangements?
- A.Borrowing to pay premiums with policy as collateral
- B.Always provided by insurer interest-free
- C.Illegal
- D.Only for micro insurance
Answer: A
Useful for high net worth planning but increases complexity and costs.
143Which is an example of a 'non-life' product (not life insurance)?
- A.Health insurance (general)
- B.Endowment
- C.Whole life
- D.Term assurance
Answer: A
Life vs general product distinctions matter for regulation and claim handling.
144Which is true about 'policy endorsements'?
- A.They alter policy terms and are recorded as formal amendments
- B.They are informal notes
- C.They cancel nominee rights
- D.They are illegal
Answer: A
Endorsements provide formal record of modifications to original contract.
145Which is the role of 'reinsurer'?
- A.Accept a portion of insurer’s risk to help spread large exposures
- B.Sell policies direct to customers
- C.Manage agents
- D.Calculate premiums for banks
Answer: A
Reinsurance is a standard risk management tool in insurance industry.
146Which is a common disclosure required at point of sale?
- A.Charges, benefits, surrender conditions and cooling-off period
- B.Insurer secrets
- C.Agent income only
- D.None
Answer: A
Transparent disclosure reduces mis-selling and consumer complaints.
147Which is a benefit of 'premium waiver' rider?
- A.Stops cover permanently
- B.Keeps cover in force while premiums are waived due to disability of insured
- C.Increases premiums automatically
- D.Removes sum assured
Answer: B
Conditions for waiver (proof, waiting periods) are product-specific.
148Which is true about 'surrender value formula'?
- A.Surrender value is arbitrary
- B.Often based on guaranteed surrender value plus vested bonuses, subject to policy rules
- C.Equal to death benefit
- D.Not disclosed
Answer: B
Policy documents and regulations set minimum guaranteed surrender provisions.
149Which is true about 'premium holiday'?
- A.Policy errors
- B.Temporary suspension of premium payments allowed under product terms
- C.Always increases benefits
- D.Changes ownership
Answer: B
Premium holiday terms vary; some policies permit limited pauses under conditions.
150Which is the correct practice for document retention by policyholders?
- A.Discard policy bond after purchase
- B.Keep policy documents, receipts and communications safely for claims and reference
- C.Send originals to agent only
- D.Never keep any record
Answer: B
Good record-keeping speeds claim settlement and reduces disputes.